MINI NURSES EXAM CENTRE
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Paper I
General nursing revision and practice.
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Community and public health practice.
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Open practice →MATERNAL & NEWBORN CAREMidwifery
24 questions covering pregnancy, labour, emergencies and newborn care.
Start midwifery →TIMED CBT50-question challenge
Paper I practice with a timer and explanations.
Start the CBT →Midwifery practice questions: 2026 revision
Updated 16 October 2026 • 24 questions • Suggested time: 30 minutes. Choose one answer before opening the explanation. Keep your own score out of 24.
Prepared for C Mini Nurses (ABBAS RN.). Independent practice for exam preparation; these are not official NMCN questions or predictions. Educational revision only: follow current local protocols and supervised clinical practice.
1. After an uncomplicated facility birth, healthy mothers and newborns should receive facility care for at least:
- 6 hours
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 7 days
Show answer & explanation
C. 24 hours. This is the WHO minimum; individual needs may require longer care.
2. After the initial postnatal contact, WHO recommends at least how many additional contacts in the first six weeks?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Six
Show answer & explanation
C. Three additional contacts, making a minimum of four in total.
3. Which is the recommended timing of an early follow-up postnatal contact?
- 48–72 hours
- Only at six months
- Only when ill
- At one year
Show answer & explanation
A. 48–72 hours. Further routine contacts are recommended at 7–14 days and during week six.
4. When should breastfeeding ideally begin?
- Within one hour of birth
- After 12 hours
- After 24 hours
- After three days
Show answer & explanation
A. Within one hour of birth. Support early initiation when mother and newborn are clinically able.
5. For how long is exclusive breastfeeding recommended?
- One month
- Three months
- Six months
- Twelve months
Show answer & explanation
C. Six months. Exclusive breastfeeding means breast milk without other foods or drinks, including water, with permitted medical exceptions.
6. When should appropriate complementary foods usually be introduced?
- At two months
- At four months
- At six months
- At twelve months
Show answer & explanation
C. At six months, alongside continued breastfeeding.
7. Breastfeeding with complementary feeding can continue until:
- Six months only
- Nine months only
- One year only
- Two years or beyond
Show answer & explanation
D. Two years or beyond, according to WHO and UNICEF recommendations.
8. Which newborn finding requires prompt medical assessment?
- Feeding well
- Reduced activity and feeding difficulty
- Normal waking for feeds
- Settling after a feed
Show answer & explanation
B. Reduced activity and feeding difficulty are danger signs that need prompt assessment.
Antenatal care, labour and emergency revision
9. Under the WHO antenatal care model, what is the minimum number of routine contacts?
- Four
- Six
- Eight
- Twelve
Show answer & explanation
C. Eight. WHO recommends at least eight contacts; women with additional needs require more frequent assessment.
10. When should the first routine antenatal contact occur?
- Within the first 12 weeks
- At 20 weeks only
- At 28 weeks
- When labour begins
Show answer & explanation
A. Within the first 12 weeks. Early booking within the first 12 weeks allows assessment, prevention and planning.
11. Which routine daily supplement combination does WHO recommend during pregnancy?
- Iron alone
- Vitamin C alone
- Calcium and no folate
- 30–60 mg elemental iron plus 400 micrograms folic acid
Show answer & explanation
D. 30–60 mg elemental iron plus 400 micrograms folic acid. The recommended preventive daily combination is 30–60 mg elemental iron and 400 micrograms folic acid. Treatment of diagnosed anaemia needs individual assessment.
12. A woman at 32 weeks reports a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the best response?
- Reassure her until the next visit
- Arrange urgent assessment for pre-eclampsia
- Recommend sleep without assessment
- Ignore symptoms if she has no ankle swelling
Show answer & explanation
B. Arrange urgent assessment for pre-eclampsia. These are warning symptoms of severe disease. Arrange immediate clinical assessment, including blood pressure; absence of swelling does not exclude pre-eclampsia.
13. WHO describes the active first stage of labour as beginning at approximately which cervical dilatation?
- 2 cm
- 3 cm
- 5 cm
- 10 cm
Show answer & explanation
C. 5 cm. WHO uses 5 cm for the start of the active first stage. Assess the whole clinical picture rather than using cervical dilatation alone.
14. Which practice best supports respectful maternity care?
- Explain procedures and obtain informed consent
- Perform examinations without explanation
- Discuss private findings publicly
- Ignore the woman’s questions
Show answer & explanation
A. Explain procedures and obtain informed consent. Protect dignity, privacy and informed choice throughout care. Consent is an ongoing process.
15. For a woman who wants support during labour, WHO recommends:
- Banning all companions
- Allowing only hospital staff to provide support
- Choosing a companion without asking her
- A companion of her choice
Show answer & explanation
D. A companion of her choice. A chosen companion can provide emotional and practical support while the team maintains privacy and safe care.
16. For a woman and baby who are otherwise well, progress slower than 1 cm per hour alone should lead to:
- Automatic caesarean birth
- Individual assessment rather than automatic intervention
- Immediate routine oxytocin for everyone
- A diagnosis of obstruction in every case
Show answer & explanation
B. Individual assessment rather than automatic intervention. WHO advises against using 1 cm per hour as a universal trigger for intervention. Evaluate maternal and fetal condition and the overall labour pattern.
17. Which medicine is used to prevent or treat seizures in severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia?
- Magnesium sulfate
- Oral iron
- Amoxicillin
- Oxytocin
Show answer & explanation
A. Magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is the recommended anticonvulsant. It requires trained administration and monitoring; hypertension also needs appropriate treatment.
18. To reduce postpartum haemorrhage risk during the third stage, which intervention is recommended?
- Routine antibiotics for every woman
- Withholding all uterotonics
- A quality-assured prophylactic uterotonic
- Routine fundal pressure
Show answer & explanation
C. A quality-assured prophylactic uterotonic. A prophylactic uterotonic supports uterine contraction and reduces bleeding risk. Oxytocin is a recommended choice; selection depends on guidance and availability.
19. A woman develops heavy bleeding and dizziness shortly after birth. What is the best response?
- Wait for a fixed blood-loss threshold
- Activate the emergency response and start the PPH protocol promptly
- Ask her to return tomorrow
- Offer oral iron as the only treatment
Show answer & explanation
B. Activate the emergency response and start the PPH protocol promptly. Suspected postpartum haemorrhage requires immediate team response, assessment, resuscitation and treatment of the cause. Do not delay because blood loss has not yet been fully measured.
20. For clinically diagnosed postpartum haemorrhage, WHO recommends starting intravenous tranexamic acid:
- Only after 24 hours
- Instead of all other treatment
- Only when surgery has failed
- As soon as possible within three hours of birth, alongside standard care
Show answer & explanation
D. As soon as possible within three hours of birth, alongside standard care. Early tranexamic acid is part of PPH treatment, in addition to the other required measures. The three-hour window is measured from birth.
21. For a healthy term newborn, the first bath should generally be delayed for at least:
- 24 hours
- 30 minutes
- One hour
- Two hours
Show answer & explanation
A. 24 hours. Waiting at least 24 hours helps protect warmth and supports uninterrupted early care.
22. For a newborn who is breathing well and does not need immediate resuscitation away from the mother, cord clamping is recommended:
- Immediately in every case
- Before 30 seconds in every case
- Not earlier than one minute after birth
- Only after 24 hours
Show answer & explanation
C. Not earlier than one minute after birth. Delayed clamping, not earlier than one minute, supports infant iron status. Immediate resuscitation needs may change the plan.
23. Which combination is appropriate immediate care for a stable newborn?
- Early bathing and separation
- Thorough drying, assessment of breathing and skin-to-skin contact
- Routine separation until the next day
- Giving water before the first breastfeed
Show answer & explanation
B. Thorough drying, assessment of breathing and skin-to-skin contact. Assess breathing and maintain warmth, including drying and skin-to-skin contact; support early breastfeeding when clinically appropriate.
24. Which is an appropriate postnatal care intervention for the mother?
- Assess only the baby
- Avoid asking about mood
- Stop all follow-up after discharge
- Screen for depression and anxiety with referral when needed
Show answer & explanation
D. Screen for depression and anxiety with referral when needed. Postnatal care includes mental as well as physical health assessment, support and access to further care.
Read the source guidance
- WHO: care in the first weeks after childbirth
- WHO: infant and young child feeding
- WHO: newborn health and danger signs
- WHO: antenatal contacts and supplements
- WHO: intrapartum care
- WHO: pre-eclampsia
- WHO: updated PPH recommendations (2025)
- WHO: tranexamic acid for PPH
- WHO: caring for a newborn
- WHO: timing of cord clamping
A simple revision routine
Attempt a set without notes. Check each explanation. Write down the topics you missed, review those lessons, and return for a second attempt.