BY ABBAS RN. LEARN / PRACTISE / GROW

50 Nursing Practice Questions: Pressure Care, Catheter Safety and Fluid Calculations

MINI NURSES • PRACTICE & LEARN

50 questions. Practical nursing decisions.

Pressure care, catheter safety, patient teaching, documentation and fluid calculations.

Choose one answer per question. Use the checkpoints after questions 20 and 40, then score the full set. Every item has an explanation you can open when you are ready to review.

Independent practice: These are original learning questions, not official or recalled NMCN examination items. Calculation scenarios are arithmetic exercises, not patient prescriptions. Clinical care requires individual assessment and local protocols.
0 of 50 answered. Work at your own pace.
1. A patient cannot change position after a stroke. What is the most useful initial pressure-care action?

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Answer B: Assess skin and mobility and plan assistance. Assessment connects the patient's actual limitations with an individual prevention plan.

2. A patient with dark skin reports a painful heel, but redness is not obvious. What should the nurse do?

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Answer C: Assess colour, temperature, texture and pain. Pressure damage on dark skin may be detected through changes other than obvious redness.

3. Which entry best describes a skin observation?

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Answer D: Left heel intact with local discolouration and tenderness. A specific site and observable findings allow the next clinician to understand the concern.

4. A patient avoids turning because it hurts. Which response best supports prevention?

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Answer A: Explore pain and coordinate a tolerable repositioning plan. Addressing the barrier makes the care plan more achievable and respects the patient's experience.

5. Which patient most clearly needs help with repositioning?

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Answer B: One unable to move independently because of weakness. Inability to shift weight independently creates a specific need for assistance.

6. A pressure-redistributing mattress has arrived. What is still necessary?

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Answer C: Continue individual skin and mobility assessment. Equipment is part of prevention; it does not replace ongoing assessment and planned care.

7. A patient develops a new painful discoloured area over the sacrum. What is the best action?

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Answer D: Relieve pressure and arrange prompt clinical review. Early recognition should lead to pressure relief, documentation and assessment before damage progresses.

8. Which handover most clearly supports ongoing pressure care?

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Answer A: State skin findings, assistance needed and the next review plan. A useful handover tells the next nurse what was found, what support is needed and what happens next.

9. When should a pressure-care plan be reconsidered?

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Answer B: When mobility or clinical condition changes. Changing ability or illness can alter risk and the assistance required.

10. Which question best checks a patient's ability to reposition?

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Answer C: Can you show me how you change position and tell me if it hurts?. Demonstration and an open question reveal practical ability and barriers such as pain.

11. A postoperative catheter has no ongoing documented indication. What should the nurse pursue?

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Answer D: Review and removal through the authorised pathway. The continuing need should be reviewed rather than allowing the device to remain by default.

12. Where should a urinary drainage bag normally be positioned?

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Answer A: Below bladder level and off the floor. This position supports drainage while avoiding contact with the floor.

13. Which finding most clearly supports an indwelling catheter indication?

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Answer B: Acute urinary retention. Acute retention can require bladder drainage; convenience alone is not an indication.

14. A urine culture is prescribed for a patient with an indwelling catheter. Where is the usual sample collected?

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Answer C: From the disinfected sampling port using aseptic technique. A fresh aseptic port specimen reduces contamination associated with old drainage-bag urine.

15. Which practice protects the catheter drainage system?

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Answer D: Keep the system closed and tubing unkinked. Maintaining a closed system and unobstructed drainage are core maintenance measures.

16. A patient develops painful bladder spasms with poor drainage. What is the best response?

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Answer A: Assess promptly and escalate persistent drainage problems. Pain and poor drainage require assessment; the cause and fluid plan must not be assumed.

17. What should daily catheter review establish first?

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Answer B: Whether a valid indication remains. A daily indication review helps avoid unnecessary duration of catheterisation.

18. A catheterised patient has bacteria in the urine but no attributable symptoms. Which statement is most accurate?

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Answer C: Colonisation is possible and treatment depends on clinical context. Asymptomatic bacteriuria differs from symptomatic infection and generally does not need antibiotics, with specific exceptions.

19. Which patient statement shows appropriate catheter-care understanding?

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Answer D: I will report poor drainage with pain and avoid tugging the tubing. Reporting problems and avoiding traction support safe ongoing care.

20. Which teaching method best checks practical understanding?

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Answer A: Ask the patient to demonstrate and explain the plan. Teach-back and demonstration reveal whether the instructions can be applied.

Checkpoint: 20 questions reached.

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21. A nurse is unsure which removal protocol applies. What is the safest next step?

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Answer B: Check the authorised local pathway and clarify with the team. Clarifying the applicable protocol supports safe action within competence and authorisation.

22. Which record best supports catheter output review?

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Answer C: Urine output 300 mL from 08:00 to 12:00. A measured volume over a defined interval is interpretable and can be compared with the care plan.

23. A patient asks why the catheter is still present. Which response is most appropriate?

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Answer D: Explain the documented indication and review plan. Patients should be included in understanding the reason and planned duration of the device.

24. Which discharge detail is essential for someone going home with a catheter?

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Answer A: Who to contact for problems and when review is arranged. An actionable contact and review plan supports continuity after discharge.

25. A patient is on a prescribed fluid restriction. How should catheter-related hydration advice be given?

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Answer B: Align advice with their individual fluid plan. General hydration advice must be adapted to the patient's prescribed plan.

26. Which statement is an objective nursing observation?

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Answer C: Patient walked 5 metres with one-person assistance. The distance and assistance describe an observable event without judgement.

27. You discover that a planned skin check was not completed. What should you document?

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Answer D: Record the facts and arrange the outstanding assessment. Accurate records distinguish care actually performed from care still needed.

28. A patient prefers a language you do not speak well. What best supports detailed teaching?

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Answer A: Use an appropriate interpreter and check understanding. Appropriate language support allows meaningful explanation and verification of understanding.

29. Which question best explores a patient's concern?

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Answer B: What worries you most about managing this at home?. An open question invites the patient to identify the concern in their own words.

30. The nurse escalates a new skin concern. What should the record include?

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Answer C: Who was contacted, the concern and the agreed plan. The communication and response provide a clear basis for follow-up.

31. Calculation practice: 750 mL is prescribed over 6 hours. What rate is required?

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Answer D: 125 mL/hour. 750 divided by 6 equals 125 mL/hour. Confirm the prescription and clinical suitability separately.

32. A simulated fluid chart records 250 mL orally and 600 mL intravenously. What is the total?

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Answer A: 850 mL. 250 + 600 = 850 mL.

33. A simulated chart shows intake 1800 mL and output 1450 mL. What is the recorded balance?

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Answer B: +350 mL. Recorded balance is intake minus output: 1800 − 1450 = +350 mL; it is not a complete clinical assessment.

34. Convert 0.75 litres to millilitres.

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Answer C: 750 mL. One litre is 1000 mL, so 0.75 × 1000 = 750 mL.

35. A training infusion contains 120 mL to run over 30 minutes. What is the hourly rate?

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Answer D: 240 mL/hour. 30 minutes is 0.5 hour; 120 ÷ 0.5 = 240 mL/hour.

36. In a calculation exercise, 250 mL runs at 50 mL/hour. How long will it take?

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Answer A: 5 hours. Time = volume ÷ rate = 250 ÷ 50 = 5 hours.

37. A specimen volume is 0.025 litres. What is this in millilitres?

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Answer B: 25 mL. 0.025 × 1000 = 25 mL.

38. A simulated urine record is 90, 120 and 150 mL over three intervals. What is the total?

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Answer C: 360 mL. 90 + 120 + 150 = 360 mL.

39. For arithmetic practice, 600 mL is to run over 4 hours using 20 drops/mL tubing. Round to the nearest whole drop/minute.

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Answer D: 50 drops/minute. (600 × 20) ÷ (4 × 60) = 50 drops/minute.

40. A simulated infusion runs at 80 mL/hour for 2.5 hours. How much is delivered?

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Answer A: 200 mL. Volume = rate × time = 80 × 2.5 = 200 mL.

Checkpoint: 40 questions reached.

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41. Convert 90 minutes to hours.

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Answer B: 1.5 hours. 90 ÷ 60 = 1.5 hours.

42. A chart has 400 mL oral intake, 150 mL enteral intake and 750 mL IV intake. What is the total recorded intake?

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Answer C: 1300 mL. 400 + 150 + 750 = 1300 mL.

43. A simulated patient's recorded intake is 1200 mL and output is 1600 mL. What is the balance?

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Answer D: −400 mL. 1200 − 1600 = −400 mL.

44. A training bag contains 900 mL and 350 mL has infused. How much remains?

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Answer A: 550 mL. 900 − 350 = 550 mL.

45. At a simulated rate of 75 mL/hour, how long does 300 mL take?

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Answer B: 4 hours. 300 ÷ 75 = 4 hours.

46. Convert 1250 mL to litres.

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Answer C: 1.25 L. 1250 ÷ 1000 = 1.25 litres.

47. For arithmetic practice, 100 mL is infused over 60 minutes using a 60 drops/mL set. What is the flow rate?

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Answer D: 100 drops/minute. (100 × 60) ÷ 60 = 100 drops/minute.

48. A training record shows 480 mL over 8 hours. What is the average hourly volume?

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Answer A: 60 mL/hour. 480 ÷ 8 = 60 mL/hour. Clinical interpretation requires additional patient information.

49. A simulated infusion begins at 09:15 and lasts 2 hours 45 minutes. When does it finish?

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Answer B: 12:00. 09:15 plus 2 hours is 11:15; another 45 minutes gives 12:00.

50. A learner answers 42 of 50 questions correctly. What is the percentage score?

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Answer C: 84%. 42 ÷ 50 × 100 = 84%. A practice score is not a clinical competency assessment.

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For the clinical principles behind this set, see NHS pressure-ulcer guidance, NICE guidance summarised by RCP, CDC CAUTI prevention, CDC urine-culture stewardship and NHS catheter care.